Sample question paper (class 8- mid year)

 MAXX MATH LEARNING

MATHEMATICS – MODEL QUESTION PAPER 

CLASS VIII

STD: VIII
Date: ____________
Time: 2 hours
Reading Time: 10 minutes
Marks: 80

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. Read all the questions carefully.

2. Write the answers neatly and clearly.

3. Diagrams are not to scale, unless otherwise mentioned.

4. Show all necessary working.

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (6 × 1 = 6)

Choose the correct option.

1. Which of the following rational numbers lies between −5/6 and −1/2?

(A) 3/4
(B) 2/3
(C) −7/10
(D) −3/5

2. Solve: 2(3x − 1) + 4 = 20.

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

3. Which of the following is a perfect square?

(A) 950
(B) 1024
(C) 1080
(D) 1156

4. The cube root of −4913 is

(A) −15
(B) −17
(C) 17
(D) 19

5. A polygon has 9 sides. The sum of its interior angles is

(A) 1080°
(B) 1260°
(C) 1440°
(D) 1620°

6. In the given figure, find the value of x is

7. 

(A) 20
(B) 34
(C) 30
(D) 36

SECTION B – FILL IN THE BLANKS (7 × 1 = 7)

Fill in the blanks with the correct answer.

7. The sum of the first 15 odd numbers is __________.

8. √1764 = __________.

9. The additive inverse of −11/18 is __________.

10. A three-digit number has 4 as its hundreds digit and 7 as its tens digit. If the number is divisible by 9, its units digit is ______.

11. The area of a trapezium is 144 cm². If its parallel sides are 16 cm and 20 cm, then its height is __________ cm.

12. A square and an equilateral triangle have the same perimeter. If the side of the triangle is 14 cm, the side of the square is __________ cm.

13. In the given data: 6, 9, 12, 6, 15, 9, 6, 18, 12, 6, 9, 21, 6, 12, 9, 6, the frequency of the number 6 is __________.

SECTION C – ASSERTION AND REASONING (2 × 1 = 2)

Choose the correct option.

14. Assertion (A): The diagonals of a rectangle are equal.

Reason (R): Opposite sides of a rectangle are equal.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

15. Assertion (A): Every non-zero rational number has a multiplicative inverse.

Reason (R): Zero has no multiplicative inverse.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

SECTION D – SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (10 × 3 = 30)

Answer the following. Show necessary working.

16. Simplify:

(7/8 + 5/12) − (3/4 − 7/18)

17. Solve:

5(x − 4) − 3(2x + 1) = 7.

18. Find the smallest perfect square number which is greater than 5000. Also find the difference between the two numbers.

19. In a rectangle ABCD, diagonals AC and BD intersect at O. If ∠AOB = 64°, find ∠BOC.

    
    
    

20. Evaluate:

∛(6859 − 4913)

21. The decimal part of π up to 15 decimal places is 3.141592653589793.

Find the frequency of the digits:

(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 9

22. In a parallelogram, one angle is 110°. Find the measures of the other three angles.

23. The perimeter of a rectangle is 84 cm. Its length is 5 cm more than twice its breadth. Find the length and breadth.

24. The following table shows the marks obtained by 40 students in a test.

25. The area of a rhombus is 96 cm². If one of its diagonals is 12 cm, find the other diagonal.

SECTION E – LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (5 × 4 = 20)

Answer the following. Show necessary working.

26. Prove that the diagonals of a rectangle bisect each other.

27. Find the least number that must be subtracted from 5000 to make it a perfect square.

28. Construct a quadrilateral MORE with MO = 6 cm, OR = 5 cm, RE = 7 cm, EM = 4.5 cm and diagonal MR = 8 cm. Write the steps of construction and draw the figure.

29. A purse contains ₹5, ₹2 and ₹1 coins in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. If the total value of all the coins is ₹210, find the number of each type of coin.

30. The following double bar graph shows the number of students in two sections of Class VIII who participated in different activities. Study the graph and answer the questions.

(i) Which activity has the highest total number of students?

(ii) In which activity is the difference between the two sections the greatest?

(iii) Find the total number of students in Section A.

(iv) How many more students are there in Section B than in Section A?

SECTION F – DATA HANDLING / APPLICATION (3 × 5 = 15)

31. A school recorded the number of saplings planted each day in a week.

32. A field (not to scale) is in the shape shown, made up of a rectangle, a triangle and a semicircle.

Find the total area of the field.

33. Solve the following equations:

(a) 7x − 9 = 4(2x + 3)

(b) (3x + 5)/4 = 2x − 1

ALL THE BEST!

sample model question paper for EVS 2 (GRADE 5)

MODEL QUESTION PAPER (sample)

PART – A: OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS – 15 MARKS

I. Choose the correct answer. (5 × 1 = 5)

1. Which of the following fruits has seeds on the outside?

2. Which of these seeds will most likely fall near the parent plant after ripening?

3. Study the picture and find the odd one out.

4. Which animal is wrongly matched with its home?

5. What will happen if a plant does not get sunlight?

a) It will grow strong
b) It will turn green
c) It will not make food
d) It will flower quickly

II. Fill in the blanks. (5 × 1 = 5)

6. The tiny pore on the underside of a leaf is called __________.

7. The part of a flower that becomes a fruit is the __________.

8. A baby fish is called a __________.

9. The body of an earthworm is made of many small rings called __________.

10. Honey is prepared by __________.

III. Match the following. (5 × 1 = 5)

11. Maple seed —  a) Many seeds in one fruit

12. Paramecium — b) Tiny animal, one-celled

13. Jackfruit —       c) Carries pollen

14. Starfish —         d) Carried by wind

15. Bee —               e) Sea animal with arms

PART – B: MAIN PAPER – 25 MARKS

IV. Answer in one word. (5 × 1 = 5)

16. The process by which seeds scatter away from the parent plant.

---

17. Name the part of the plant that makes food.

---

18. Which animal has the longest neck among birds?

---

19. The cover that protects the eggs in birds.

---

20. Which animal has gills throughout life?

---

V. Give reasons. (3 × 2 = 6)

21. Leaves are called the food factory of the plant.

Reason:

---

---

22. Turtles come to the land to lay eggs.

Reason:

---

---

23. Seeds of some plants have spines or hooks.

Reason:

---

---

VI. Answer briefly. (4 × 2 = 8)

24. What is pollination? Name any two agents that help in pollination.

---

---

25. How do water lilies float on water?

---

---

26. Write two differences between amphibians and reptiles.

Amphibians                                      Reptiles

i) __________________ | i) __________________

ii) __________________ | ii) __________________

27. Name the young ones of the following animals.

VII. Observe the pictures and answer the questions. (4 × 2 = 8)

A. Identify the mode of seed dispersal shown in each picture.

B. Write the correct name of the animal and its group.

VIII. Answer in detail. (1 × 4 = 4)

29. Explain how a seed grows into a new plant. Draw a neat labelled diagram.

---

---

---

---

IX. Case Study. (1 × 4 = 4)

Meera planted some beans in a pot. She placed it near the window. She watered it every day. After a few days, a small plant came out of the soil. It had two small leaves. Meera kept it in sunlight and protected it from insects. After a few weeks, it became a big plant and developed flowers.

30. What did Meera plant in the pot?

---

31. What were the first leaves of the plant called?

---

32. Why did Meera keep the plant near the window?

---

33. What was the next important stage in the growth of the plant after it became a big plant?

---

ukg - sample(august)

 

Answer key- class 7 annual practice paper

 Answer key

SECTION A

1. 3x − 5 = 2x + 7 ⇒ 3x − 2x = 7 + 5 ⇒ x = 12 → a

2. 2³ × 4² = 8 × 16 = 128 → b

3. 25% of 400 = 100, so new value = 500 → b

4. 650 is not a perfect square → d

5. Third angle = 180 − (45 + 65) = 70° → a

6. Rhombus has 2 lines of symmetry → b

7. SP = 1000, discount 20% ⇒ SP = 800, gain 20% ⇒ CP = 800 ÷ 1.2 = 666.67 ≈ 700 → b

8. (3²)³ = 3⁶ = 729 → c

9. Area = ½ × base × height, if base doubles → area doubles → a

10. Cuboid has 12 edges → b

11. Congruent triangles: equal sides and angles → b

12. Mean = (2+4+6+8)/4 = 20/4 = 5 → b

13. Smallest 3-digit perfect square = 100 → a

14. 10² ÷ 10⁰ = 100 ÷ 1 = 100 → a

15. Parallelogram rotational symmetry order = 2 → b

SECTION B

16. 8 − {3 + 2[5 − (3 − 1)]}
    = 8 − {3 + 2[5 − 2]}
    = 8 − {3 + 2×3}
    = 8 − {3 + 6}
    = 8 − 9 = −1

17. 7x/8 + 1/4 = 3/4
    Convert 1/4 = 2/8 ⇒ 7x/8 + 2/8 = 6/8
    ⇒ (7x + 2)/8 = 6/8 ⇒ 7x + 2 = 6 ⇒ 7x = 4 ⇒ x = 4/7

18. Successive discounts:
    1000 × 0.9 × 0.8 = 1000 × 0.72 = ₹720

19. (3⁵ × 10⁵ × 25)/(5⁷ × 6⁵)
    10⁵ = (2×5)⁵ = 2⁵×5⁵
    25 = 5²
    6⁵ = (2×3)⁵ = 2⁵×3⁵
    Cancel: 3⁵ cancels, 2⁵ cancels
    Remaining: (5⁵×5²)/5⁷ = 1 → 1

20. Let equal sides = x, base = x/2
    Perimeter = x + x + x/2 = 30
    ⇒ (5x /2) = 30 ⇒ x = 12
    Base = 6
    Sides: 12 cm, 12 cm, 6 cm

21. Total outcomes = 25
    (i) Multiples of 3 or 5: {3,5,6,9,10,12,15,18,20,21,24,25} = 12
    Probability = 12/25
    (ii) Perfect squares: {1,4,9,16,25} = 5
    Probability = 5/25 = 1/5

22. Regular pentagon: 5 lines, order 5
    Parallelogram: 0 lines, order 2
    Equilateral triangle: 3 lines, order 3

23. QRS ≅ QPS
    QS common
    ∠RQS = ∠SQP (angle bisector)
    ∠RSQ = ∠QSP (angle bisector)
    Hence congruent (ASA)

24. Construction steps:
    Draw AB = 5 cm
    At B construct 60°
    Cut BC = 6 cm on that ray
    Join AC

25. Circumference = πd = (22/7)×49 = 154 cm
    Distance in 100 rotations = 154 × 100 = 15400 cm = 154 m

SECTION C

26. 2^x × 4^{x+1} = 128
    4 = 2² ⇒ 4^{x+1} = 2^{2x+2}
    So 2^x × 2^{2x+2} = 2^{3x+2}
    128 = 2⁷ ⇒ 3x + 2 = 7 ⇒ 3x = 5 ⇒ x = 5/3

27. In Δ ABC, AB = AC, D midpoint of BC ⇒ BD = DC
    AD common
    AB = AC
    So Δ ABD ≅ Δ ACD ⇒ ∠ADB = ∠ADC = 90°
    Hence AD ⟂ BC

28. In triangle ABC:
    Angle A = 30° + 60° = 90°
    Angle C = 70°
    Angle B = 180 − (90 + 70) = 20° ⇒ a = 20°
    In triangle ADC: angles 60° and 70°, so c = 50°
    Then b = 180 −  50 = 130°
    Final: a = 20°, b = 130°, c = 50°

29. SI = 1768 − 1600 = 168
    SI = (P×R×T) /100 ⇒ 168 = (1600×6×T) /100
    ⇒ 168 = 96 T ⇒ T = 168/96 = 1.75 years (1 year 9 months)

30. Area of big circle = (22/7)×14² = 616
    Area of 2 small circles = 2×[(22/7)×3.5²] = 77
    Rectangle area = 3×1 = 3
    Remaining area = 616 − (77 + 3) = 536 cm²

SECTION D

31. Initial: 25² = 7² + x² ⇒ x² = 625 − 49 = 576 ⇒ x = 24
    New base = 24 + 8 = 32
    New height = √(625 − 1024) = √(−399) → not possible (ladder too short)
    So ladder cannot reach wall after moving → No height (invalid situation)

32. Bar graph: Plot students on x-axis and marks on y-axis with values
    Ajay 450, Bali 500, Dipti 300, Geetika 360, Hari 400, Faiyaz 540

33. (i) Rectangle area = 18×10 = 180
    Subtract triangles (calculate from diagram) → shaded area = 110 cm²
    (ii) Square = 20×20 = 400
    Subtract triangles → shaded area = 150 cm²

Annual practice question paper- class 7

CLASS VII – MATHEMATICS ANNUAL EXAMINATION 

Time: 2 hours 15 minutes
Maximum Marks: 80

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE (1 × 15 = 15)

(

1. If ( 3x - 5 = 2x + 7 ), then x =
   a) 12 b) -12 c) 2 d) 7

2. ( 2^3 × 4^2 = )
   a) 64 b) 128 c) 32 d) 256

3. Increase ₹400 by 25%:
   a) 425 b) 500 c) 480 d) 450

4. Which is NOT a perfect square?
   a) 441 b) 529 c) 625 d) 650

5. If two angles of a triangle are 45° and 65°, third angle is:
   a) 70° b) 80° c) 90° d) 100°

6. Number of lines of symmetry in a rhombus:
   a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 0

7. A shopkeeper gives 20% discount on ₹1000 and still gains 20%. CP =
   a) 600 b) 700 c) 800 d) 900

8. ( (3^2)^3 = )
   a) 9 b) 27 c) 729 d) 81

9. Area of a triangle = 1/2 × base × height. If base doubles, area:
   a) doubles b) halves c) same d) quadruples

10. Number of edges in a cuboid:
    a) 8 b) 12 c) 6 d) 10

11. Congruent triangles must have:
    a) equal area only
    b) equal sides and angles
    c) equal perimeter only
    d) same shape only

12. Mean of 2, 4, 6, 8 is:
    a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8

13. The smallest 3-digit perfect square is:
    a) 100 b) 121 c) 144 d) 169

14. ( 10² ÷ 10⁰ = )
    a) 100 b) 0.01 c) 10 d) -100

15. A parallelogram has rotational symmetry of order:
    a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

SECTION B – (10 × 3 = 30)

16. Simplify:
    ( 8 - { 3 + 2[5 - (3 - 1)] } )

17. Solve and check:     

    
    
    

18. After two successive discounts of 10% and 20%, find the final price of ₹1000.

19. Evaluate:
    
    

    
    
    

20. The base of an isosceles triangle is half the other two equal sides. The perimeter of the triangle is 30cm. What is the length of each side of the triangle.

21. A bag contains 25 cards numbered from 1 to 25. A card is drawn at random 

    from the bag. Find the probability that the number on the drawn card is:

    (i) divisible by 3 or 5.                 (ii) A perfect square number.

22. Complete the table:

Polygon	Lines of symmetry	Order of rotation
Regular pentagon	?	?
Parallelogram Equilateral triangle	?                     ?	?                         ?

23. In Fig., QX bisects ∠PQR as well as ∠PSR. State the three facts needed to ensure that △QRS = △QPS.Give reasons for each statement.

    
    
    

24. Construct a triangle ABC  with sides AB= 5 cm, BC = 6 cm and angle B = 60 ⁰ with a pair of compasses amd a ruler.

25. Find the distance covered by the wheel of a truck in 100 rotations if the diameter of the wheel is 49 cm.

SECTION C – (5 × 4 = 20)

26. If ( 2^x × 4^{x+1} = 128 ), find x.

27. In ΔABC, AB = AC. D is midpoint of BC. Prove that AD ⟂ BC.

28. Find the value of a, b, and c 

    
    
    

29. In what time will Rs. 1600 amount to Rs. 1768 at 6% per annum simple interest?

30. From a circular card sheet of radius 14 cm, two circles of radius 3.5 cm and a rectangle of length 3 cm and breadth 1 cm are removed (as shown in the following figure.) Find the area of the remaining sheet. (take π = 22/7)                                                                       

SECTION D – (3 × 5 = 15)

31. A ladder of length 25 m reaches a wall at 7 m height.
    If the base is moved 8 m away, find the new height reached.

---

32. Following data gives total marks (out of 600) obtained by six children of a particular class. 

    Represent the data on a bar graph.

    
    
    

---

33. In the following figures, find the area of the shaded portions: (i)

Class 2- English model question paper

CLASS 2 – ENGLISH QUESTION PAPER

A. Reading Comprehension

Read the passage carefully.

Riya has a small puppy named Bruno. Bruno is soft and brown. He likes to run in the garden and play with a red ball. Every morning Riya gives him milk and biscuits. Bruno follows Riya everywhere in the house. When Riya comes back from school, Bruno wags his tail and jumps happily. Sometimes Riya takes Bruno to the park. They run and play together. Bruno is a very loyal and loving pet.

Answer the questions

What is the name of the puppy?

___________________________________________________________________________________.

What colour is Bruno?

___________________________________________________________________________________

What does Bruno like to play with?

___________________________________________________________________________________

What does Riya give Bruno in the morning?

___________________________________________________________________________________

What does Bruno do when Riya comes back from school?

___________________________________________________________________________________

Choose the correct answer

The rabbit moves by

a) flying

b) hopping

c) swimming

B. Advertisement Comprehension

Read the advertisement.

Answer the questions.

6. What is the name of the event?

         ___________________________________________________________________________________

     7. Write two things children can enjoy there.

        ___________________________________________________________________________________

      8. What is the ticket price if you and your mother and father attend the fun fair?

        ___________________________________________________________________________________

      9. On which day is the fair and when it starts?

         ___________________________________________________________________________________

C. Androcles and the Lion

Match the word with the meaning

10. Cruel          a. Big open place

11. Arena         b. Thankful

12. Grateful     c. Run away

13. Escape        d. Hurting others

Fill the missing letters

14. L _ O N

15. A _ D R O C L _ S

16. F _ R _ S T

17. T _ O R _

Answer the questions

18. Why did Androcles run away?

          __________________________________________________________________________________

          __________________________________________________________________________________

          __________________________________________________________________________________

18. Why was the lion in pain?

          __________________________________________________________________________________

          __________________________________________________________________________________

          _________________________________________________________________________________

18. What did Androcles remove from the lion’s paw?

          __________________________________________________________________________________

          __________________________________________________________________________________

          _________________________________________________________________________________

D. Poem – Who Has Seen the Wind

Fill in the blanks

21. Who has seen the ______?

22. The leaves hang ______.

23. The trees bow down their ______.

True or False

24. The wind can be seen clearly. ______

25. The leaves tremble when the wind blows. ______

Missing letters

26. W _ N D

27. T _ E M B L _ N G

28. L _ A V _ S

---

Answer the questions

29. How do we know the wind is passing?

          __________________________________________________________________________________

          __________________________________________________________________________________

          _________________________________________________________________________________

29. What happens to the trees when the wind blows?

          __________________________________________________________________________________

          __________________________________________________________________________________

          _________________________________________________________________________________

E. Poem – My Ship

Fill in the blanks

I had the prettiest little __________

__________________________________________

__________________________________________

__________________________________________

Analogy

35. Ship : Sail :: Bird : ______

36. River : Water :: Tree : ______

37. Wind : Blow :: Bird : ______

Rhyming words

38. snow – ______

39. me – ______

40. by – ______

F. Vocabulary (Lessons)

Match the words with meanings

41. Pity               a. Shaking slightly

42. Trembling   b. Person who sells goods

43. Kind              c. Feeling sorry for someone

44. Merchant     d. Good and helpful

Missing letters

45. M _ R C _ A N _

46. G _ A T _ F U _

47. P _ W

48. A _ E N _

G. Do As Directed (Grammar)

49. Write the plural:
    The child is playing in the park.
    (child → ______)

50. Choose the correct word:
    Riya ______ two pencils.
    (has / have)

51. Change into feminine:
    The lion is sleeping.
    (lion → ______)

52. Fill the correct pronoun:
    Rahul and Raja are my brother. ______ are kind.

53. Fill the correct  word:
    ______ flowers are very pretty.
    (this / these)

54. Add the correct article:
    She saw ______ elephant in the zoo.

55. Choose the correct conjunction:
    Which fruit do u like? apples ______ oranges?
    (and / or)

56. Choose the correct adverb:
    The rabbit runs ______.(quick)
    

57. Fill the preposition:
    The cat is ______ the table. ( across / under)

58. Change into past tense:
    She __________ (go) to school yesterday.

59. Make it a question:
    Tomorrow is my Birthday .  (Rewrite as question)

         ____________________________________________________________.

49. Punctuate:
    riya rahul aman and sita are friends

          ____________________________________________________________.

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Math Modal question paper - ct 4 (class 4)

 Class IV – CT 4 Model Question Paper

 SECTION A – OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

(10 × 1 = 10)

I. Fill in the blanks (4 × 1 = 4)

1. 0.6 is equal to ______ tenths.

2. 1 m = ______ cm.

3. 7:45 pm in 24-hour clock is written as ______.

4. A rectangle is 15 m long and 4 m wide.Its area is ______ sq m.

II. Choose the correct answer (3 × 1 = 3)

5. 3/5 of 25 is:
   a) 10
   b) 12
   c) 15
   d) 20

6. Which of the following is the smallest?
   a) 0.9
   b) 0.09
   c) 0.19
   d) 0.5

7. 2.5 kg is equal to:
   a) 2050 g
   b) 250 g
   c) 2500 g
   d) 25 g

III. True or False (3 × 1 = 3)

8. 1 litre = 100 ml. ______

9. 0.25 means 25 hundredths. _______

10. If a movie starts at 3:00 PM and ends at 5:00 PM, it lasted 3 hours. ______

SECTION B- Answer the following. Show the working:

(9 × 2 = 18)

1. Convert:
   4 ½ kg to g.

2. A square field has area 64 sq m. What is the length of one side?

1. The duration of a movie is 2 hrs 45 mins.
   If the movie starts at 5:35 pm, at what time will it end?

2. A farmer planted 150 trees. 2/3  are neem trees. How many are not neem trees?

1. The circle chart shows different games liked by students.
   The circle represents 80 students.

   
   
   
   
   

   (a) How many students like tennis?
   (b) How many more students like cricket than football?
   (c) Write one benefit of playing games.

2. Convert:
   a) 3 kg 250 g to grams
   b) 4750 ml to litres

3. If 1 kg apples cost ₹120, find the cost of:
   a) 500 g
   b) 3 kg

4. What will be the time 5 hrs 30 mins after 9:45 am?
   Write the answer in both 12- hour and 24- hour clock.

5. The following pictograph shows number of students attending hobby classes:

   Dance – 😀 😀 😀 😀 😀 😀
   Music – 😀 😀 😀 😀 😀 😀 😀
   Drawing – 😀 😀 😀 😀 😀 😀 😀 😀
   Craft – 😀 😀 😀 😀
   Yoga – 😀 😀 😀 😀 😀

   (Each 😀 represents 3 students)

   a) Which class has the most students?
   b) How many students attend dance class?
   c) How many more students attend drawing than craft?
   d) Which class has half the strength of drawing?

Answer the following:

(4 × 3 = 12)

10. A rectangle has length 18 cm and breadth 12 cm.A square has side 12 cm.Which shape has more area? How much more?

10. ½ kg onion costs ₹24 and 2 kg tomato costs ₹80.
    How much should you pay in all if you buy 1½ kg onion and 1 kg tomato?

11. Neha studied from 4:35 PM to 5:20 PM.She again studied from 6:00 PM to 6:45 PM. For how long did she study in total?

12. The bar graph shows the number of ice cream bars sold in a week:

a) Which flavour was sold the most?
b) How many more mango bars were sold than vanilla?
c) How many bars were sold in total?

                                                         *************************

Class 7

 

sample modal question paper - math -ct 4 (class 3)

  MODEL QUESTION PAPER - CT 4

STD III – MATHEMATICS

Cycle Test
Time: 1 hr 30 min
Maximum Marks: 80

PART A – OBJECTIVE (10 Marks)

I. Tick the correct option: (10 × 1 = 10)

1. How many tens are there in 2000?
   a) 20 b) 200 c) 2000

2. 3 kg 500 g =
   a) 350 g
   b) 3500 g
   c) 3050 g

3. 750 ml + 250 ml =
   a) 1 litre
   b) 100 ml
   c) 2 litres

4. 8 × 125 =
   a) 900
   b) 1000
   c) 875

5. The fraction equal to 1/2 is
   a) 2/4
   b) 3/4
   c) 1/4

6. 1 km =
   a) 100 m
   b) 1000 m
   c) 10 m

7. 6:45 is
   a) Half past 6
   b) Quarter past 6
   c) Quarter to 6

8. Rs 5.00 has how many 50 paise coins?
   a) 5
   b) 10
   c) 50

9. The shape with 4 equal sides is
   a) rectangle
   b) square
   c) triangle

10. 900 ÷ 9 =
    a) 10
    b) 90
    c) 100

PART B – MAIN PAPER

II. Look at the figure (Lines Concept) (4 × ½ = 2)

a) AB is a ______.
b) It extends in ______ directions.
c) It has ______ end points.
d) It is written as ______.

III. Fill in the blanks (8 × ½ = 4)

1. 6489 rounded to nearest 100 = ______

2. 1 decade  = ______ years

3. 8 thousands − 3 tens = ______

4. 1 hour = ______ minutes

5. 4 hours 15 minutes = ______ minutes

6. The predecessor of 10000 is ______

7. 6/12 in simplest form = ______

8. If today is Saturday, 3 days later it will be ______

IV. Solve:  (10 Marks)

a) 8456 − 3978
b) 526 × 8
c) 960 ÷ 6
d) 10 kg − 4 kg 950 g
e) 12 l − 6 l 875 ml

V. Conversion (Show Working) (8 Marks)

a) Convert 16 hours 20 minutes into minutes.

b) Change 18 km 450 m into metres.

c) Convert 7 kg 350 g into grams.

d) Express 125 m in cm.

VI. True or False (5 × 1 = 5)

1. 430 has 3 tens.

2. Dividing a number by itself gives 1.

3. 7/7 is equal to 1.

4. A rectangle has 4 right angles.

5. 500 g = half kg.

VII. Put the correct sign (4 × ½ = 2)

(>, <, =, +, −, ×, ÷)

1. 720 ___ 9 = 80

2. 7 kg ___ 6900 g

3. ₹400 ___ 40000 paise

4. 8999 ___ 9000

VIII. Write any 3 addition facts to get the sum 125 (3 × 1= 3)

a) ___ + ___ = 125
b) ___ + ___ = 125
c) ___ + ___ = 125

IX. Solve: (7 Marks)

a) Mary sang for 1 hour and 30 minutes. How many minutes did she sing?

b) She started at 5:00 p.m. When did the programme end?

c) Draw the clock and the hands of the clock for 9:15.

d)  Write two equivalent fractions for 3/5.

e) Find: 1/4 + 2/4

f) Define an angle with a diagram.

g) Draw a line segment PQ of length 6 cm.

X. Statement Sums (3 × 3 = 9)

1. A factory produced 3575 biscuits. 1450 biscuits were packed.
   How many biscuits are left unpacked?

2. A train travelled 235 km in the morning and 468 km in the evening.
   Find the total distance travelled.

3. A water tank holds 95 litres of water. 37 litres were used.
   How much water remains?

XI. Calendar Question (8 Marks)

Look at the calendar below:

MARCH 2026

SUN	MON	TUE	WED	THU	FRI	SAT
1	2	3	4	5	6	7
8	9	10	11	12	13	14
15	16	17	18	19	20	21
22	23	24	25	26	27	28
29	30	31

a) How many Sundays are there?
b) On which day does the 17th fall?
c) How many Saturdays are there?
d) If school is closed on Saturdays and Sundays, how many working days are there?

XII. Money Billing & Word Problems (18 Marks)

1. Arun went to a toy shop and bought:

2 cars, 3 helicopters, 1 aeroplane, 3 teddy bears, 1 sunglass

a) Find the total amount he spent. (4)

b) He gave Rs 1000. How much money did he get back? (3)

2. Naveen delivers 145 newspapers every day. How many newspapers does he deliver in 30 days? (3)

3. A train travelled 210 km 70 m by bus and 95 km 80 m by train. Find the total distance travelled. (4)

4. A milkman had 25 litres of milk. He sold 12 l 750 ml. How much milk is left? (4)

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Sample- class 2

 

Sample modal question paper - CT 4 (class 4)

CT4 MODEL QUESTION PAPER

STD: IV – SCIENCE

Lessons: Air & Water

Time: 1 Hour
Total Marks: 35

 SECTION A – OBJECTIVE (10 Marks)

I. Tick the correct answer. (4 × ½ = 2)

1. Which gas supports burning?
   a) Nitrogen
   b) Oxygen
   c) Carbon dioxide
   d) Steam

2. The process of settling down of mud in water is called:
   a) Filtration
   b) Sedimentation
   c) Evaporation
   d) Boiling

3. Which of these causes air pollution?
   a) Planting trees
   b) Factory smoke
   c) Clean surroundings
   d) Rain

4. Water vapour changes into water by:
   a) Boiling
   b) Freezing
   c) Condensation
   d) Melting

II. Fill in the blanks. (4 × 1 = 4)

1. 1. The layer of air around the Earth is called ____________.

   2. The amount of water vapour in air is called ____________.

   3. The substance that dissolves in a liquid is called ____________.

   4. Adding chlorine to water kills ____________.

III. True or False (2 × 1 = 2)

4. Water vapour is the gaseous form of water.

5. Oil dissolves in water.

III. Analogy (2 × 1 = 2)

6. Ice : Solid :: Water : __________

7. Oxygen : Breathing :: Carbon dioxide : __________

 SECTION B – MAIN (25 Marks)

I. Write the scientific term. (5 × 1 = 5)

1. The layer of air around the Earth.

2. Change of water into vapour.

3. Waste water from homes.

4. Passing water through a cloth to remove impurities.

5. The amount of water vapour in air.

II. Give reasons. (3 × 2 = 6)

1. We should drink boiled water.

2. A matchstick burns only in the presence of air.

3. Cotton becomes heavier after falling into water.

III. Find the term using the clues. (2 × 2 = 4)

1. I am formed when smoke mixes with fog. Who am I?

2. I am the process in which clear water is carefully poured out after mud settles. Who am I?

IV. Picture-Based Questions (3 × 1= 3)

1. Observe the picture and answer:

a) Name the process shown.
b) What will happen if the clear water is poured carefully into another container?

2. 

a) Why does the flame go out?
b) Which gas is required for burning?

3. 

a) What is this type of pollution called?
b) Mention one way to reduce this pollution.

V. Answer briefly. (1 × 4 = 4)

1. Explain the three forms of water with examples.

VI. Reading Comprehension (3 × 1 = 3)

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions:

Water is very important for all living things. We use water for drinking, cooking, washing and cleaning. But water in rivers and lakes may contain germs. Boiling water kills germs. Chlorine is also added to water in water works to make it safe for drinking. We must avoid throwing waste into rivers because it pollutes water.

8. Name one method to kill germs in water.

9. Why should we not throw waste into rivers?

10. Where is chlorine added to water?

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